After coming across a lineage map and after a discussion of the question "why didn't Jesus (pbuh) marry?", an idea came to me: what if Jesus didn't marry so as not to procreate, (pbuh)?
So as we see here, Abraham's two sons, Ismail and Isaac where two branches, Isaac becoming Israel, beginning the Jewish Nation, and Ismail beginning the Arab Nation. Since Jesus was the last Prophet from the Jewish tribe, and he (pbuh) did not procreate, could this be a symbol that the Jewish nation was supposed to be halted, or were no longer favored? Should they have followed his example?
It becomes even more interesting when you take into account that MANY jewish tribes of Arabia converted to Islam upon the arrival of the message through Muhammed (pbuh), symbolically reuniting the two tribes and bringing them both back to the message that was given to their father, Ibrahim (pbuh).
Also discussing this question, I've come across ideas that suggest that he (pbuh) did not marry because he is to return. Or that he was the most zahid, or detached from earthly affairs, of all of the prophets, (pbut) which he had to be because he was sent to the Israelites, a people who had forgotten about their insides and focused only on how they appeared (i.e. religious). It has also been suggested that he (pbuh) was too generous for a monogamous relationship, possibly meaning it would be an injustice for only one woman to be married to him, as his heart was big enough for many (pbuh), or that he wanted to spend his time with his students who were eager to hear God's message, which would also pair with his (pbuh) zahid-ness.
Either way, it's an interesting question to contemplate. Just wanted to share my thoughts.
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So as we see here, Abraham's two sons, Ismail and Isaac where two branches, Isaac becoming Israel, beginning the Jewish Nation, and Ismail beginning the Arab Nation. Since Jesus was the last Prophet from the Jewish tribe, and he (pbuh) did not procreate, could this be a symbol that the Jewish nation was supposed to be halted, or were no longer favored? Should they have followed his example?
It becomes even more interesting when you take into account that MANY jewish tribes of Arabia converted to Islam upon the arrival of the message through Muhammed (pbuh), symbolically reuniting the two tribes and bringing them both back to the message that was given to their father, Ibrahim (pbuh).
Also discussing this question, I've come across ideas that suggest that he (pbuh) did not marry because he is to return. Or that he was the most zahid, or detached from earthly affairs, of all of the prophets, (pbut) which he had to be because he was sent to the Israelites, a people who had forgotten about their insides and focused only on how they appeared (i.e. religious). It has also been suggested that he (pbuh) was too generous for a monogamous relationship, possibly meaning it would be an injustice for only one woman to be married to him, as his heart was big enough for many (pbuh), or that he wanted to spend his time with his students who were eager to hear God's message, which would also pair with his (pbuh) zahid-ness.
Either way, it's an interesting question to contemplate. Just wanted to share my thoughts.
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